5 questions to test your understanding
A consistent aesthetic relativist who fully accepts that all aesthetic judgments are equally valid products of their cultural context would be forced to accept which conclusion?
Which piece of evidence would most strongly support aesthetic universalism — the claim that certain aesthetic responses or properties are shared across all human cultures?
Aesthetic relativism avoids most of the philosophical problems of universalism by showing that most cultural aesthetic standards are equally valid, giving us a coherent and complete theory of aesthetic judgment.
Moderate universalism holds that certain fundamental capacities for aesthetic experience — such as sensitivity to formal coherence or the capacity for disinterested attention — may be shared across cultures, even though the specific content of aesthetic ideals varies considerably.
Why does pure aesthetic relativism — the view that all aesthetic judgments are equally valid products of their cultural context — face a serious philosophical problem? What does this imply for how we should approach the universalism/relativism debate?