5 questions to test your understanding
A pharmaceutical company conducts a clinical trial but withholds information about serious side effects from participants, reasoning that the drug will likely benefit most participants and generate important knowledge for society. A Kantian autonomy-based analysis would primarily object that:
Which of the following best captures why, for Kant, treating a person as a 'mere means' is morally wrong?
On the Kantian view, deceiving someone for their own benefit — lying to a patient to protect them from distressing news — can still violate their autonomy.
Respecting autonomy and promoting welfare typically point in the same direction — there is no genuine conflict between autonomy-based and welfare-based moral reasoning.
What is it about rational self-governance that Kant thinks confers moral worth (dignity), and why does this make treating persons as mere means intrinsically wrong rather than just contingently harmful?