Questions: Bipolar II Disorder and Hypomanic Episodes

5 questions to test your understanding

Score: 0 / 5
Question 1 Multiple Choice

A patient presenting with severe recurrent depression mentions, almost in passing, a 5-day period three years ago when they needed almost no sleep, felt unusually confident, and made several impulsive purchases. They describe this period as 'when I was finally doing well.' How should this history affect the working diagnosis?

AIt is likely irrelevant — the 'good period' was probably just remission from depression
BIt strongly suggests Bipolar II rather than MDD, because it describes a hypomanic episode — changing the treatment approach significantly
CIt confirms Bipolar I, since impulsive spending indicates full mania
DIt suggests a personality disorder rather than a mood disorder, since hypomania is ego-syntonic
Question 2 Multiple Choice

Why is prescribing an antidepressant alone (without a mood stabilizer) potentially harmful when Bipolar II is unrecognized?

AAntidepressants are contraindicated in any bipolar patient because they cause metabolic toxicity
BAntidepressants can accelerate mood cycling, trigger mixed states, or induce a switch to a manic or hypomanic episode in bipolar patients
CAntidepressants are so sedating that they worsen the fatigue already caused by bipolar depression
DAntidepressants are completely ineffective in bipolar patients, wasting time while the disorder progresses
Question 3 True / False

Bipolar II is a milder condition than Bipolar I because the hypomanic episodes cause less functional impairment than full mania.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 4 True / False

If a patient diagnosed with Bipolar II later experiences a full manic episode, the DSM-5 diagnosis must be updated to Bipolar I.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 5 Short Answer

Why is Bipolar II so frequently misdiagnosed as major depressive disorder, and what specific clinical strategy reduces this error?

Think about your answer, then reveal below.