Questions: Cayley's Theorem

5 questions to test your understanding

Score: 0 / 5
Question 1 Multiple Choice

In the proof of Cayley's theorem, why is the map λ_g : G → G defined by λ_g(x) = gx a bijection (permutation of G)?

ABecause G is finite, any function from G to G with no repeated outputs is automatically bijective
BBecause multiplying by g is reversible via multiplication by g⁻¹, which exists by the group axiom of inverses, making λ_g a permutation of G
CBecause left-multiplication maps are linear, and all linear maps on finite sets are bijections
DBecause g and x commute in every group, making λ_g its own inverse
Question 2 Multiple Choice

A student claims that Cayley's theorem shows every group 'is' a symmetric group. What is the correct statement of the theorem?

AThe student is right — every group is isomorphic to the full symmetric group Sₙ for some n
BEvery group is isomorphic to a subgroup of some symmetric group — it embeds into Sₙ, but need not fill the entire group
CEvery group is isomorphic to S_{|G|}, the symmetric group on exactly |G| elements
DEvery group contains a copy of some symmetric group as a normal subgroup
Question 3 True / False

Cayley's theorem guarantees that nearly every group has the most efficient possible embedding into a symmetric group, with no 'wasted' elements.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 4 True / False

Since every group G is isomorphic to a subgroup of some symmetric group by Cayley's theorem, any theorem that holds for all subgroups of all symmetric groups also holds for all groups.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 5 Short Answer

Explain why the map Φ : G → Sym(G) defined by Φ(g) = λ_g is injective, and why injectivity is essential for Cayley's theorem.

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