5 questions to test your understanding
A composer wants a bass line that moves by step across a I–V–I progression rather than leaping between chord roots. Which harmonic choice best achieves this?
Why does the cadential 6/4 chord require resolution to the dominant rather than being usable in any harmonic context?
Using a first-inversion chord allows the bass voice to move by step rather than by the large leaps of fourths and fifths typical of root-position progressions.
Second-inversion (6/4) chords are as stable as root-position chords and can be placed freely in any harmonic context without special preparation or resolution.
Why are inversions described as making the bass voice 'melodic,' and how does this differ from root-position writing?