Questions: Chord Inversions and Voice-Leading Options

5 questions to test your understanding

Score: 0 / 5
Question 1 Multiple Choice

A composer wants a bass line that moves by step across a I–V–I progression rather than leaping between chord roots. Which harmonic choice best achieves this?

AUse all three chords in root position — the natural bass notes will create smooth motion.
BUse I–V6–I, placing the third of V in the bass to create a stepwise bass of 1–7–1.
CDouble the bass in the tenor voice to smooth out the leaps.
DSubstitute vi for I in the final chord so the bass can descend stepwise to 6.
Question 2 Multiple Choice

Why does the cadential 6/4 chord require resolution to the dominant rather than being usable in any harmonic context?

ABecause second-inversion chords have a louder, more assertive sound that overwhelms the tonic.
BBecause the fourth above the bass is an unstable dissonance that the ear expects to resolve downward to the third and fifth of the dominant.
CBecause music theory rules forbid the tonic chord from appearing in second inversion near a cadence.
DBecause the 6/4 chord contains a tritone that must resolve by contrary motion to the dominant.
Question 3 True / False

Using a first-inversion chord allows the bass voice to move by step rather than by the large leaps of fourths and fifths typical of root-position progressions.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 4 True / False

Second-inversion (6/4) chords are as stable as root-position chords and can be placed freely in any harmonic context without special preparation or resolution.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 5 Short Answer

Why are inversions described as making the bass voice 'melodic,' and how does this differ from root-position writing?

Think about your answer, then reveal below.