5 questions to test your understanding
A composer inserts chromatic passing tones on nearly every beat of a melody over a simple I–IV–V–I progression. What is the most likely compositional problem?
Why does a chromatic passing tone 'work' harmonically even though it belongs neither to the current chord nor to the diatonic scale?
A chromatic passing tone is justified not by belonging to the key or chord, but entirely by its stepwise motion between two diatonic pitches.
Adding more chromatic tones to a melody generally increases its expressivity, regardless of how many are already present.
What determines whether a chromatic tone 'works' in a tonal composition, and why can heavily chromatic works like Chopin's nocturnes remain tonally coherent?