5 questions to test your understanding
A consumer maximizes utility with income m at prices p, reaching utility level ū. A second consumer minimizes expenditure to reach exactly ū at the same prices. Which of the following must be true?
Why is Hicksian (compensated) demand more useful than Marshallian demand for measuring the welfare cost of a price increase to a consumer?
Shephard's lemma states that differentiating the expenditure function e(p, ū) with respect to the price of good i gives the Hicksian demand for good i.
Marshallian demand holds utility constant when measuring a consumer's response to a price change.
In your own words, what is the 'duality' in consumer duality, and why does it matter for welfare analysis?