5 questions to test your understanding
A sequence of random variables Xₙ converges to X in L². Which of the following is guaranteed?
Suppose Xₙ → X in probability. Under which additional condition can we conclude Xₙ → X in L²?
If Xₙ → X in L^p for some p > 1, then Xₙ → X in L^q for every q with 1 ≤ q < p, provided the underlying probability space has total measure 1.
L² convergence of Xₙ to X guarantees that Xₙ(ω) → X(ω) for almost most ω in the sample space.
Why is convergence in L² particularly useful in probability theory compared to other L^p convergences, and what structural feature makes it special?