5 questions to test your understanding
A monopolist sets MR = MC and charges price P_m > MC. A regulator forces the firm to price at MC instead. What is the primary welfare effect of this intervention?
What is the direct source of deadweight loss under monopoly?
Under perfect price discrimination, consumers are better off than under uniform-price monopoly because deadweight loss is eliminated.
The deadweight loss triangle under monopoly represents potential surplus that neither buyers nor sellers capture — it is simply lost from the economy.
Why is the transfer of surplus from consumers to the monopolist (due to higher prices) not the same thing as deadweight loss, and why does the distinction matter for policy?