Questions: Derivational Morphology

5 questions to test your understanding

Score: 0 / 5
Question 1 Multiple Choice

A speaker coins '*thievage' to mean 'the practice of stealing,' but native speakers reject it in favor of 'theft.' This is best explained by:

AThe suffix -age being completely unproductive in English
BBlocking — the established word 'theft' already occupies the semantic slot
CCompounding being preferred over suffixation for abstract nouns
D'Theft' being a converted form of the verb 'to thieve'
Question 2 Multiple Choice

Adding '-ness' to 'happy' to create 'happiness' is a derivational process rather than an inflectional one primarily because:

A'-ness' attaches after the base rather than before it
BIt creates a new word (lexeme) with a different grammatical category — adjective becomes noun
CInflectional morphology only applies to verbs and nouns, not adjectives
DThe resulting word 'happiness' has a completely unpredictable meaning
Question 3 True / False

The meaning of a derived word can usually be reliably predicted by combining the meanings of its component morphemes.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 4 True / False

Conversion (zero-derivation) is a legitimate derivational process even though it adds no phonological material to the base form.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 5 Short Answer

What is 'blocking' in derivational morphology, and why does it mean that derivational rules don't generate all the words they theoretically could?

Think about your answer, then reveal below.