5 questions to test your understanding
Bank A has excellent internal risk management and holds high-quality assets. However, four of its major counterparties — banks it has lent money to — fail simultaneously. Bank A then collapses. What does this scenario illustrate?
A distressed hedge fund is forced to sell large quantities of mortgage-backed securities quickly. Other financial institutions that hold similar securities — and had no direct dealings with the hedge fund — suffer losses. What contagion channel is this?
A mid-sized financial institution with extensive derivatives and repo agreements across hundreds of counterparties can pose greater systemic risk than a much larger institution with fewer, more transparent bilateral exposures.
Reducing interconnectedness in the financial system is an unambiguous improvement in policy terms because it reduces systemic risk without meaningful economic costs.
Why can't individual banks eliminate systemic risk through their own prudent risk management, even if every bank in the system manages its own risks carefully?