5 questions to test your understanding
A government increases spending by $100 billion when MPC = 0.8. The simple Keynesian multiplier predicts a $500 billion GDP increase. Which best explains why the actual increase is likely much smaller?
Why are fiscal multipliers typically larger during deep recessions than during normal economic expansions?
A fiscal multiplier of 0.7 means government spending is counterproductive and actually shrinks the economy.
A $100 billion tax cut generally produces a smaller GDP increase than $100 billion in direct government spending, even with the same MPC.
Why is Ricardian equivalence considered a theoretical benchmark rather than an accurate description of how households actually respond to fiscal stimulus?