Why does FTC Part 1 imply that every continuous function has an antiderivative, and why is this significant?
Think about your answer, then reveal below.
Model answer: FTC Part 1 states that if f is continuous on [a, b], then g(x) = ∫ₐˣ f(t) dt is differentiable and g'(x) = f(x) — meaning g is an antiderivative of f, constructed explicitly as an accumulation function. Since this construction works for any continuous f, every continuous function has an antiderivative. The significance is that antiderivatives exist even when no elementary formula can express them (e.g., e^(x²) or sin(x)/x), and that integration and differentiation are inverse operations.
Before FTC, there was no guarantee that every continuous function could be anti-differentiated. The theorem resolves this by constructing the antiderivative directly as an accumulation function. This also reveals the deep structural unity of calculus: differentiation and integration undo each other, just as multiplication and division do in arithmetic.