5 questions to test your understanding
An investor compares an index fund (0.05% annual expense ratio) to an actively managed fund (1.10% annual expense ratio). Both invest in the same U.S. large-cap stocks and earn an identical gross return of 8% per year. Over 30 years, the main reason the index fund produces a significantly higher ending balance is:
A colleague says: 'My actively managed fund beat the S&P 500 by 4% last year. Clearly it's worth the higher fees.' Which response best identifies the flaw in this reasoning?
Index funds tend to outperform most actively managed funds over long periods primarily because their managers are more skilled at selecting stocks.
Automatically investing a fixed dollar amount each pay period — regardless of whether markets are up or down — removes the decision of when to invest and helps avoid the common behavioral mistake of selling during downturns.
Why do even small annual fee differences have a disproportionately large impact on long-term investment outcomes, and what mathematical principle explains this?