5 questions to test your understanding
A 28-year-old woman with heterozygous Factor V Leiden starts combined oral contraceptives. Her physician notes a dramatically elevated DVT risk compared to either risk factor alone. What best explains this synergistic interaction?
A patient with antithrombin deficiency requires anticoagulation for a DVT. Which statement best describes the treatment implication of this specific thrombophilia?
Factor V Leiden causes thrombosis by directly accelerating the forward coagulation cascade and increasing thrombin generation from the start.
Most heterozygous Factor V Leiden carriers will develop at least one venous thrombotic event during their lifetime if they do not receive anticoagulation.
Explain why inherited thrombophilias are described as 'risk modifiers' rather than direct causes of thrombosis, using Factor V Leiden as your example.