Questions: Inverse Probability Weighting

5 questions to test your understanding

Score: 0 / 5
Question 1 Multiple Choice

A patient receives treatment despite having a propensity score of 0.05 (very unlikely to be treated given their covariates). What is their approximate IPW weight, and what does it represent?

AWeight ≈ 0.05; they receive a small weight because they were unlikely to be treated
BWeight ≈ 20; they receive a large weight because they are unusual among the treated and represent many similar patients who were not treated
CWeight ≈ 1; all treated patients receive the same weight regardless of propensity score
DWeight ≈ 0.95; the weight is based on the probability of not being treated
Question 2 Multiple Choice

A regression model estimates the effect of a drug conditional on specific covariate values (age, sex, comorbidities). An IPW analysis estimates the marginal effect. Why might a clinician prefer the marginal estimate for a policy decision?

ABecause marginal effects are always larger and more convincing to policymakers
BBecause conditional effects assume covariates are measured without error, which is rarely true
CBecause the marginal effect answers 'what if everyone in the population received this drug?' — the relevant question for population-level policy
DBecause regression cannot adjust for confounding, while IPW can
Question 3 True / False

IPW with correctly estimated propensity scores removes confounding by both measured and unmeasured variables.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 4 True / False

Stabilized IPW weights reduce variance compared to raw weights without introducing bias into the treatment effect estimate.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 5 Short Answer

Why do extreme propensity scores (near 0 or 1) create problems for IPW, and what is the intuition behind stabilized weights as a solution?

Think about your answer, then reveal below.