Questions: Kondo Effect

4 questions to test your understanding

Score: 0 / 4
Question 1 Multiple Choice

Why does a magnetic impurity in a metal cause the resistivity to increase as temperature decreases, unlike non-magnetic impurities which give a temperature-independent residual resistivity?

AMagnetic impurities attract more electrons at low temperatures
BThe exchange coupling J between the impurity spin and conduction electron spins produces spin-flip scattering. At high T, this scattering is weak (perturbative). As T decreases, higher-order scattering processes (where the electron flips the impurity spin and then flips it back) interfere constructively, producing a logarithmically growing correction: δρ ∝ -J³N(0)² ln(T). This is a many-body resonance that strengthens at low T
CThe magnetic field of the impurity aligns nearby electron spins, creating a local barrier
DMagnetic impurities have larger atomic radii that block electron paths at low temperature
Question 2 Multiple Choice

Wilson's numerical renormalization group (NRG) showed that the Kondo problem flows from a weak-coupling fixed point (free impurity spin) to a strong-coupling fixed point (screened singlet). What is the physical picture at each fixed point?

AAt weak coupling the impurity is superconducting; at strong coupling it is insulating
BAt T >> T_K (weak coupling), the impurity spin is essentially free and the conduction electrons scatter weakly from it — the impurity contributes a Curie-like susceptibility and weak scattering. At T << T_K (strong coupling), the impurity spin is completely screened by a surrounding cloud of conduction electrons forming a many-body singlet, and the impurity site acts as a strong potential scatterer (unitarity limit) with no residual magnetic moment
CBoth fixed points describe free electrons with different effective masses
DThe strong-coupling fixed point has a local magnetic moment
Question 3 True / False

The Kondo temperature T_K = D exp(-1/JN(0)) has the same non-analytic form as the BCS gap Δ ~ ω_D exp(-1/N(0)V). This is not a coincidence.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 4 Short Answer

Explain why the Kondo effect requires antiferromagnetic exchange coupling (J > 0) and does not occur for ferromagnetic coupling (J < 0).

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