Questions: One-Way Functions

5 questions to test your understanding

Score: 0 / 5
Question 1 Short Answer

A function is computable in polynomial time but hard to invert. Why is 'hard to invert' defined in terms of negligible probability of success across random inputs, rather than worst-case hardness?

Think about your answer, then reveal below.
Question 2 Multiple Choice

If one-way functions exist, then P != NP. Does P != NP imply that one-way functions exist?

AYes — P != NP is exactly equivalent to the existence of OWFs
BNo — P != NP guarantees worst-case hardness, but OWFs require average-case hardness. It is believed that P != NP implies OWFs exist, but this has not been proven. There could be a world where P != NP but every efficiently computable function can be inverted on most inputs
CP != NP is irrelevant to one-way functions because they are defined over finite domains
DYes, but only for functions based on number-theoretic problems
Question 3 Multiple Choice

Integer multiplication (computing n = p * q from primes p, q) is a candidate one-way function. Why is it only a 'candidate' rather than a proven OWF?

ABecause multiplication is not actually in polynomial time
BBecause proving multiplication is one-way requires proving factoring has no polynomial-time algorithm, which would resolve P vs NP-type questions that remain open
CBecause quantum computers can factor integers, so multiplication is not one-way
DBecause multiplication is invertible using the extended Euclidean algorithm
Question 4 True / False

One-way functions are sufficient to construct pseudorandom generators, pseudorandom functions, MACs, commitment schemes, digital signatures, and CPA-secure symmetric encryption.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 5 Short Answer

A one-way permutation is a one-way function that is also a bijection. Why is this additional structure useful?

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