5 questions to test your understanding
You observe that C − P > S − PV(K) for a European option pair with the same strike and expiration. What is the correct arbitrage response?
Why does put-call parity hold exactly for European options but only approximately for American options?
If two portfolios produce identical cash flows in every possible future state, they must have the same price today.
Put-call parity implies that a call and a put with the same strike and expiration is expected to have the same price.
Explain the no-arbitrage logic behind put-call parity: why must C − P equal S − PV(K)?