Questions: Random Variables as Measurable Functions

5 questions to test your understanding

Score: 0 / 5
Question 1 Multiple Choice

Let Ω = [0,1] with the Borel sigma-algebra and Lebesgue measure. A function X: Ω → ℝ is proposed such that X⁻¹({1}) is a non-measurable subset of [0,1]. Why is X not a valid random variable?

ABecause X can only equal 1 on a set of measure zero
BBecause the event {ω: X(ω) = 1} is not in ℱ, so P(X = 1) is undefined
CBecause {1} is not a Borel set in ℝ, so the preimage condition does not apply
DBecause random variables can only map to bounded intervals, not arbitrary real values
Question 2 Multiple Choice

A student defines Y(ω) = 1 for all ω ∈ Ω (a constant function). Is Y a valid random variable for any probability space (Ω, ℱ, P)?

ANo — constant functions have no randomness and therefore cannot be random variables
BYes — for any Borel set B, Y⁻¹(B) is either Ω or ∅, both of which are in every ℱ by definition
COnly if P(Ω) = 1, which requires the measure to be normalized
DNo — its range is a single point rather than a Borel set
Question 3 True / False

Nearly every function from Ω to ℝ is a random variable, as long as the probability space (Ω, ℱ, P) is well-defined.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 4 True / False

For a continuous random variable, the distribution function F(x) = P(X ≤ x) is well-defined without any need for the measurability condition.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 5 Short Answer

What is the measurability condition for a random variable, and why is it needed? Explain using the preimage concept.

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