Questions: Comparison of Riemann and Lebesgue Integrals

5 questions to test your understanding

Score: 0 / 5
Question 1 Multiple Choice

The Dirichlet function — defined as 1 for rational x and 0 for irrational x on [0,1] — is bounded and defined everywhere on the interval. Why is it not Riemann-integrable?

AIt oscillates too rapidly for Darboux sums to converge
BIts discontinuity set is the rationals, which have positive Lebesgue measure
CIts discontinuity set is all of [0,1] — it is discontinuous everywhere — which has positive measure
DBounded functions on finite intervals are always Riemann-integrable
Question 2 Multiple Choice

A student claims: 'The Lebesgue integral is more powerful than the Riemann integral because it gives different, more accurate values for functions that Riemann can handle.' What is wrong with this claim?

ANothing — Lebesgue integrals do assign different values to the same functions
BThe real advantage is that Lebesgue handles functions Riemann cannot, and the real power lies in its convergence theorems — when both apply, they give identical values
CThe claim is wrong because Riemann integrals are actually more general than Lebesgue integrals
DThe claim is right, but only for functions with infinitely many discontinuities
Question 3 True / False

A monotone function on [a,b] may have jump discontinuities, but it is still Riemann-integrable.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 4 True / False

If a function is Lebesgue-integrable on [0,1], then it is also Riemann-integrable on [0,1].

TTrue
FFalse
Question 5 Short Answer

Why does modern probability theory, functional analysis, and measure theory use the Lebesgue integral as the default framework rather than the Riemann integral, even for functions that Riemann could handle?

Think about your answer, then reveal below.