Questions: Serfdom and Medieval Unfree Peasantry

5 questions to test your understanding

Score: 0 / 5
Question 1 Multiple Choice

A medieval lord decides to sell his estate. What happens to the serfs living on it?

AThey are freed automatically — a sale severs the lord-serf relationship
BThey transfer with the land to the new owner — serfs were bound to the land, not to the person of the lord
CThey remain the property of the original lord — serfs were bound to the person, like slaves
DThey could choose whether to stay or seek freedom in a town
Question 2 Multiple Choice

Which of the following best distinguishes the legal status of a medieval serf from that of a chattel slave?

ASerfs had no obligations to lords; slaves did
BSerfs were bound to land and held some legal protections and use rights; slaves were personal property with none
CSerfs could be freely bought and sold; slaves could not
DThere was no meaningful legal distinction — serfdom and slavery were the same institution
Question 3 True / False

Medieval serfs had no legal standing whatsoever and could be bought and sold as personal property.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 4 True / False

Serfdom intensified in Eastern Europe during the 15th–17th centuries partly because Western demand for grain made large-scale coerced agriculture more profitable.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 5 Short Answer

Why is it historically significant that serfs were bound to a specific piece of land rather than to the person of their lord?

Think about your answer, then reveal below.