Questions: Simple Functions and Approximation

5 questions to test your understanding

Score: 0 / 5
Question 1 Multiple Choice

A function φ on [0,1] takes only the values 0, 1, 2, and 3, with each level set {x : φ(x) = k} being a measurable set. What type of function is φ?

AA step function — simple functions require level sets that are intervals, not arbitrary measurable sets
BA simple function — it is a finite linear combination of indicator functions of measurable sets
CA general L¹ function — any bounded function with measurable level sets is integrable but not necessarily simple
DA measurable function but not a simple function — simple functions must take only the value 0 or 1
Question 2 Multiple Choice

A student claims that because the increasing sequence φₙ converges to f(x) at every point, for large enough n the approximation becomes uniform — meaning |f(x) − φₙ(x)| < ε for ALL x simultaneously. Why is this claim wrong?

AThe claim is actually correct: pointwise convergence of a monotone increasing sequence implies uniform convergence
BThe claim is wrong because φₙ only converges at points where f is continuous
CThe claim is wrong: pointwise convergence means each fixed x eventually satisfies the bound, but the n that works may differ across points — for an unbounded function, no single n works everywhere simultaneously
DThe claim is wrong because the standard approximating sequence is not monotone increasing
Question 3 True / False

The standard construction of simple function approximations to a non-negative measurable function f converges uniformly — for large enough n, the supremum of |f(x) − φₙ(x)| over most x approaches zero.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 4 True / False

The standard increasing sequence of simple functions φₙ approximating a non-negative measurable function f satisfies φₙ(x) ≤ φₙ₊₁(x) ≤ f(x) for all x and all n.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 5 Short Answer

Explain why simple functions serve as the foundation for the Lebesgue integral: what makes them 'simple enough' to integrate by inspection, and what theorem guarantees they are 'rich enough' to approximate any non-negative measurable function?

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