What is the difference between an illocutionary act and a perlocutionary act? Give an example that illustrates the distinction.
Think about your answer, then reveal below.
Model answer: An illocutionary act is what the speaker does in uttering words — the intended social action (warning, promising, asserting). A perlocutionary act is the effect produced in the hearer as a result. For example, saying 'The bridge is out' is an illocutionary act of warning; the hearer turning back is the perlocutionary effect. The illocutionary act is defined by the speaker's intention and felicity conditions; the perlocutionary effect depends on the hearer's response and may not occur.
Austin's three-way distinction matters because illocutionary acts are conventionally regulated (a promise counts as a promise if felicity conditions are met regardless of whether it changes behavior), whereas perlocutionary effects are contingent on the hearer's psychology and circumstances. Conflating them leads to confusing whether a communicative act succeeded with whether it had its intended impact.