5 questions to test your understanding
An fMRI study shows that brain region X reliably activates during a language comprehension task. A researcher then applies single-pulse TMS to disrupt region X during the same task and finds no effect on performance. What is the most accurate interpretation?
Which of the following best captures the primary methodological advantage of TMS 'virtual lesions' over studying patients with naturally occurring brain lesions?
A TMS pulse delivered to the motor cortex of a healthy participant with no neurological condition can produce a visible muscle twitch.
High-frequency repetitive TMS (>5 Hz) generally decreases cortical excitability, making it useful for suppressing overactive brain regions.
Why does the 'virtual lesion' paradigm establish a causal relationship between a brain region and a behavior in a way that neuroimaging alone cannot?