Questions: Wittgenstein's Language-Games and the Use Theory of Meaning

5 questions to test your understanding

Score: 0 / 5
Question 1 Multiple Choice

Someone claims to follow a private rule known only to themselves, with no possible external check on whether they are applying it correctly. According to Wittgenstein's later view, this is:

APerfectly coherent — all rules are ultimately grounded in private mental events
BIncoherent — without public criteria and shared practice, there is no difference between following a rule and merely thinking you are
CHow all meaningful language ultimately works, since language originates in individual minds
DFine as long as the private rule is internally consistent
Question 2 Multiple Choice

Why does Wittgenstein say we cannot give a single definition of 'game' that covers all games?

ABecause the concept of 'game' is poorly defined and should be replaced with more precise terminology
BBecause all games share a property too obvious to require stating
CBecause games form a family of overlapping similarities with no single feature common to all — a case of family resemblance
DBecause the word 'game' is context-dependent and has no stable meaning across cultures
Question 3 True / False

According to Wittgenstein's later view, the meaning of a word is a mental image or abstract object that the word refers to, which speakers access when they use it.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 4 True / False

Wittgenstein's claim that 'meaning is use' implies that meaning is arbitrary and varies from individual to individual.

TTrue
FFalse
Question 5 Short Answer

What does Wittgenstein mean by 'meaning is use,' and why does this position make a purely private language incoherent?

Think about your answer, then reveal below.