5 questions to test your understanding
A researcher regresses crime rates on police deployment across cities and finds a positive coefficient — more police, more crime. The most likely explanation is:
What distinguishes endogeneity bias from ordinary sampling variance?
In a wage regression that omits individual ability, the OLS coefficient on education will be biased upward because ability is positively correlated with both education and wages.
Classical measurement error in the dependent variable Y (rather than in a regressor X) causes endogeneity bias in the OLS coefficient estimates.
Why does endogeneity make OLS inconsistent rather than merely imprecise, and why does this distinction matter practically?